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iDoc Academy Class Practice Test

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  • What is our role in training?
  • The Day to Day interaction between the average Officer and the Contact is the mortar that binds these blocks together. True or False?
  • For Major Contraband, is a DOR mandatory?
  • Turnouts are another term for which concept?
  • In the Tennessee v. Garner decision, under what conditions may deadly force be used to prevent escape?
  • Which of the following is an example of prosocial behavior?
  • Internal classification refers to the risk a resident poses to which entity?
  • When transporting Residents to a facility of a higher custody level, the officer must be in possession of Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) spray.
  • Where are the hands placed in the described basic stance?
  • What type of body search is required for minimum and community custody Residents?
  • Resident Companions are NEVER used for Acute Suicide Watch monitoring.
  • The DOR leads to action by which officer who conducts the hearing and determines sanctions?
  • Which term refers to property issued by the state?
  • How long does a resident have to report lost, stolen, or damaged state issues or personal property to the property officer?
  • Which of the following is NOT a PPORC signal?
  • True or False: Never do cell searches on a regular basis, residents must not know when searches will occur.
  • Which statement about contraband is true?
  • Which is an example of deliberate indifference?
  • PREA is the first federal civil law to address sexual abuse in prisons.
  • Minimum custody residents may be assigned to a facility with what kind of perimeter?
  • Which category is one of the three types of people we deal with?
  • Is there governmental interest in allowing a suspect to continue to suffer after they are under control?
  • Who has the authority to lower transport requirements for medium custody residents?
  • Which statement best reflects policy on documenting a use of force?
  • Upon appeal, which authority reviews the case and what actions can they take?
  • Residents have the right to exercise their rights without retaliation.
  • Which tactical positioning number corresponds to Directly to the side of the shoulders?
  • The protection against self-incrimination is provided by which amendment?
  • Which term best describes the act of gathering resident items into a single batch for transfer?
  • PPORC in Sizing up stands for which set?
  • Cross gender searches are permitted only in which conditions?
  • For electrical items that were working prior to shipment, how long does a resident have to submit a concern form?
  • What is the maximum total cubic feet of property allowed for a resident?
  • Which term best defines stress suffered for a prolonged period with little or no perceived control?
  • Which custody levels require CLOTHED body searches?
  • Which sequence correctly describes the DOR process steps?
  • The Public proxemic zone corresponds to which distance?
  • Which statement about STG prevalence is true?
  • What does R.I.C.E stand for?
  • A-Team responders are described as what?
  • Which option correctly contrasts formal and informal reports?
  • Which of the following is a psychological effect of OC exposure?
  • Prisoners have a right to be free from unwanted sexual conduct with an IDOC employee.
  • Where should the eyes be directed in the described basic stance?
  • Sleeping difficulties are considered which element in suicide risk assessment?
  • Which of the following is listed as a type of stress?
  • Which statement about extension to monitoring time is correct?
  • Which of the following is one of the four goals in effective communication?
  • What is the maximum cubic feet allowed for commissary items?
  • All vehicles will be (What) prior to transport.
  • Discretionary overrides are based on the case manager's professional correctional judgment, and they cannot reverse mandatory overrides.
  • Category 2 Use of Force reporting requirements include:
  • Restraints and restraint keys are included in the Transport Emergency kit.
  • If transporting by public transportation (i.e. airline), transporting officers shall adhere to all federal, state, and carrier transport regulations.
  • Which group is responsible for coordinating staging area operations during an incident?
  • A DOR must be Clear and what?
  • During transport, which type of force may not be used in community settings to prevent escape unless there is cause to believe the resident poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury?
  • Which items are considered intermediate weapons?
  • Which statement is NOT a prevention strategy?
  • What describes the hydraulic needle effect?
  • A Class A DOR will place a resident in what type of Custody?
  • Which statement best reflects the role of corrections culture in misconduct?
  • Which of the following is listed as an Extremist Group example?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the SPEAR five key behaviors indicating you are hearing what they are saying?
  • True or False: When transporting residents of mixed custody levels, all residents will be restrained according to the highest custody level?
  • Which color is associated with Notenos?
  • OC is what type of agent?
  • Which of the following is NOT a technique in the con game?
  • Which of the following is an example of short-term stress?
  • What are the components of the A.C.T decision making model?
  • Where did Notenos originate from?
  • In what year were PREA standards adopted to support implementation of the law?
  • Which statement is true about the content of a DOR?
  • Which of the following is Schedule III?
  • The midline angle relative to the opponent is described as which of the following?
  • What does the acronym S.T.R.I.C.T stand for?
  • What is the recommended compression to rescue breaths ratio for adult CPR?
  • If a resident appeals, who reviews the case and may affirm, dismiss or modify the result?
  • Which statement best describes the purpose of paraphrasing in de-escalation?
  • In planning a transport route, which elements should be considered?
  • Which statement best describes how to protect yourself professionally?
  • Which element is not part of paralanguage?
  • The Transport Emergency kit includes a radio with local law enforcement channel.
  • Which step has a 24-hour timeframe?
  • What are the reasons for a transfer of command?
  • Which of the following items is typically included in a formal report?
  • Which practice helps protect yourself from boundary issues?
  • Which statement about classification factors is true?
  • Which statement is NOT part of the described basic stance?
  • Which statement about Close Observation is true?
  • What are the three levels designed to protect offenders who may be at risk of self-inflicted injury or suicide attempt?
  • What is the minimum number of people required to be a gang, as defined here?
  • Which statement describes the proper flow of events in the DOR process?
  • Which statement about risk factors is correct?
  • Which is a valid step in deploying OC?
  • Which schedule has the highest potential for abuse?
  • DHO stands for what?
  • What is the difference between a professional boundary violation and a con game?
  • Level 1 and Level 2 Enhancements on a Class A DOR will affect what aspect of the DOR's classification?
  • Which statement about the elements of deliberate indifference is NOT correct?
  • The Transport Emergency kit includes a list of prison and local emergency phone numbers.
  • The initial report should include which of the following?
  • Ghrahm VS Connor established which standard of review for use of force?
  • What documentation should be included on transports?
  • Who may request additional transport procedures such as a chase vehicle or extra staff?
  • Managing Job related stress includes which of the following?
  • OC has been used as a weapon for over 2000 years.
  • Define the Reasonableness test:
  • What is the last tactic listed for developing a security mindset?
  • Which practice is discouraged when establishing command?
  • Which of the following is NOT a symptom of job-related stress?
  • Methamphetamine can be administered by which routes?
  • A tort claim is a civil lawsuit filed to obtain monetary compensation for harm caused by someone else's wrongful act.
  • Nonverbal communication can be identified by which cues?
  • What is the depth of chest compressions for a child as specified?
  • What are the three steps involved with responding to a resident?
  • Which of the following is a prosocial skill?
  • Which of the following is an example of a D-Team?
  • Which option lists the four goals in effective communication?
  • Narcotics are described as which of the following?
  • Which scenario demonstrates expressed consent?
  • Chain of custody refers to what?
  • Which of the following describes a tort claim?
  • For Minimum custody transports, which restraint policy applies?
  • What proportion of the communication process is conveyed nonverbally?
  • In security principles, what is the primary aim of Corrections?
  • In restrictive housing units, how often do mental health rounds occur?
  • Which practice is recommended to manage job-related stress?
  • Which Idaho code section makes it a felony for any department employee to have sexual contact with a prisoner?
  • Which statement best captures the two-fold rationale?
  • What is the primary goal of law enforcement?
  • Transport requirements of medium custody Residents serving retained jurisdiction may be lowered to the requirements of a minimum custody Resident at the discretion of the facility head, or designee.
  • Resident set-ups involve which groups?
  • What is the second step in the four-step process in effective communication?
  • Which statement best defines Acute Suicide Watch?
  • A reclassification is performed (WHEN) after the initial, and (When) thereafter or when an event might change the custody.
  • What is the active ingredient in OC?
  • Which entities are typically included in an E-Team?
  • In professional boundary issues, emotions can enter into play from which sides?
  • Step 12 in the process is known as which term?
  • Which of the following is an example of a prosocial behavior?
  • Residents must be placed at a facility that houses custody levels?
  • Which of the following is a suicide risk factor?
  • Which of the following is a Don't in writing DORs?
  • Step 14 in the process is known as which term?
  • In the disciplinary process, Some Evidence is defined as what?
  • Major Contraband example includes which of the following?
  • What percentage of prison suicides occurred after the first year of confinement?
  • (What) vehicles should be utilized for ADSEG, Close, and Medium custody Resident transports.
  • What is Corrections' first goal in security principles?
  • How should you initiate assistance for someone at risk?
  • What factors determine what level of force a staff member should use in any situation?
  • What is the purpose of documenting behavior in the disciplinary process?
  • What qualifications must a transport officer have?
  • Which elements are included in the brief initial report?
  • History of ICS: When was it first used?
  • Which definition best describes a gang?
  • Which age group has the highest suicide completion rate in state prisons?
  • During a search, if contraband is found, the procedure is to inventory it and continue to search.
  • Which option is a component of S.P.E.A.R.?
  • Which elements contribute to an effective and integrity-focused disciplinary process?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as a pre-assault indicator?
  • What sequence correctly represents the actions on the 'action ladder'?
  • At the hearing, the resident can request the DHO review video or audio and render a determination afterwards.
  • Which of the following is an example of job-related stress?
  • Idaho is in which federal circuit?
  • In a planned incident, who is responsible for establishing command?
  • Heroin typically lasts how long?
  • Which of the following is an example of long-term stress?
  • Which statement describes Schedule IV drugs?
  • Which of the following is a retained right?
  • Audio/Video evidence will not be considered in the DOR hearing.
  • Which is a potential outcome of staff sexual misconduct?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the 4 C's?
  • What are the 7 essentials in a good report?
  • Which safety measure is explicitly stated during searches?
  • Which of the following is NOT a listed limitation to assuming command?
  • Which statement about search policy is true?
  • Which item is included in drug forfeiture definitions?
  • How many tactical priorities are there?
  • Who may request the DHO to review video or audio during the hearing?
  • Which of the following is a short-term stress consequence?
  • What is the second part of the two-fold rationale?
  • Aryan Knights began in which decade and where?
  • For CPR in adults and children, what is the recommended compression rate?
  • Paraphrasing aims to do which of the following?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor measured in the classification process?
  • What type of body searches will be conducted on Residents of medium custody or higher?
  • Which statement best reflects the objective of incident reporting as described?
  • Which set of emotions can influence communication?
  • How many officers are required for AdSeg/Close Custody residents during transports?
  • Define preamble.
  • In a spontaneous incident, who typically establishes command?
  • For AdSeg/Close Custody transports, which restraints are mandatory?
  • Which quality best describes how searches should be handled?
  • What does S.I.R.F stand for?
  • Which of the following is an example of an E-Team?
  • Which stretching option is a stretching technique that involves neuromuscular facilitation?
  • Which interval descriptors apply to searches of resident living areas?
  • When transporting a Resident(s) for disciplinary reasons the two (2) person rule should apply -The two (2) person rule consists of a contact officer (no firearm) and a cover officer (has firearm).
  • In adults, the rhythm of CPR includes 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths. Which option states this correctly?
  • Which statement about indicators is true?
  • Which option describes the two types of transports?
  • Which statement describes Schedule V drugs?
  • Which definition best describes a drug?
  • Which term refers to the substance commonly known as Ecstasy?
  • Which of the following is a physical effect associated with OC exposure?
  • Which of the following is a signal included in PPORC?
  • Expressed consent is granted when the person is
  • Which of the following is commonly abused as a pill?
  • Which of the following best describes cocaine?
  • What does the acronym FITT stand for?
  • For Court with CRC residents, they must be restrained with their hands in the back or in waist restraints and leg restraints.
  • What is the last component listed in PPORC for sizing up?
  • Which drug classification speeds up the central nervous system?
  • Under what conditions may lethal force be used during transport?
  • Which term describes a resident who lacks funds?
  • How long from when a report is written to the time it gets endorsed by an authorizing supervisor?
  • Can resident companions supplement a Non-Acute Suicide Watch?
  • Which elements should be included when writing a DOR?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of a right relinquished?
  • Which items are included in the definition of staff misconduct?
  • Which group includes residents who have engaged in self-injurious behavior or threaten suicide with a specific plan?
  • How is the C-Team formed in relation to an adjacent facility?
  • Which statement best describes the two categories of STGs as listed?
  • Which of the following best describes methamphetamine?
  • What is the maximum cubic feet allowed for personal papers and legal documents?
  • What should we be in a report?
  • Companions must log their observations at what interval?
  • In situations where the line of fire would endanger persons other than the subject, staff shall NOT fire, even if the only possible alternative is to allow the action to continue.
  • Time is located where in a logbook?
  • What is the time limit between the offense and the writing of the DOR?
  • What are the three phases of transports?
  • Which of the following is a reason a resident might be noncompliant?
  • Besides being effective, what attribute must a disciplinary process have?
  • For Medium custody residents, how many officers are required during transports?
  • In the setup process, which term corresponds to the payoff concept (Turnouts)?
  • Which of the following are consequences of staff sexual misconduct?
  • Which of the following is NOT an officer safety rule?
  • What does the acronym SVC stand for in this material?
  • Which statement best describes close custody placement?
  • Which component of the FITT principle refers to how hard you exercise?
  • If you see an employee heading down the set-up path, what should you do?
  • Which term describes stress caused by worry about the future?
  • Which statement about PREA and residents' rights is accurate?
  • Possession is defined as which of the following?
  • Which term is NOT one of the three types of employees?
  • The first supervisor arriving shall assume the duties of the Staging Area Manager.
  • Should a report be subjective or objective?
  • Informant information is not always a reliable source, but it should always be reported.
  • Which option is NOT listed as one of the most common Idaho Gangs?
  • Which statement about OC's heat rating is true?
  • True or False: Initial classifications are more stringent to allow a cooling-off and observation period.
  • In controlled presence, which practice is included?
  • What is the correct order of the four-step paraphrasing process?
  • When should rescue breaths be given in relation to compressions in adult CPR?
  • According to the data, a percentage of residents in secure facilities are suspected STG members. True or False?
  • Which of the following best defines an informal report?
  • Category 1 Use of Force is:
  • Why is continuous training necessary?
  • Traffic route planning includes which items?
  • OC has been used on food for 1000 years.
  • A report does what?
  • Implied consent applies when the person is
  • Who is responsible for oversight and monitoring of the Non-Acute Suicide Watch?
  • Restraints will be removed under which circumstances?
  • Which of the following are tools for enforcing and reporting professional standards?
  • Which of the following is a way you should NOT protect yourself?
  • Which statement about suicide risk by gender is supported by the data?
  • What best describes the role of the corrections culture in sexual misconduct?
  • What is the primary purpose of conducting searches in this setting?
  • Which of the following best defines Major Contraband?
  • How long from the date served for the DHO to conduct a hearing?
  • Social Learning Theory emphasizes the importance of observing and modeling specific aspects of behavior. Which statement best reflects this theory?
  • What is the first part of the two-fold rationale intended to prevent for officers?
  • What items are included on the personal equipment list for transport personnel?
  • Under what conditions are cross-gender strip searches permitted?
  • How should a cell search be conducted?
  • Which statement about intermediate weapons is true?
  • When should officers conduct cell searches?
  • Which term describes a stretching method that uses neuromuscular facilitation?
  • Who may perform searches on female residents under standard conditions?
  • What personal equipment is listed for transport personnel?
  • The Sixth Amendment guarantees what in criminal prosecutions?
  • Which technique identifies a target in the con game?
  • What is the first tactic in developing a security mindset?
  • Which is NOT listed as a dynamic of sexual abuse?
  • How many Judicial districts are in Idaho?
  • Which value is part of professional standards?
  • Where is the Shift located in a logbook?
  • Which statement best reflects suicide rates by race in the data?
  • What is the depth of chest compressions for an adult as specified?
  • After the reviewing supervisor signs as endorsing authority, what is the next step in the DOR process?
  • True or False: A resident moving to a higher custody level facility will be restrained according to the restraint requirements of the higher custody level?
  • Which statement best describes officers' duty to retreat in use-of-force situations?
  • What form does a resident fill out to report lost, damaged, or stolen property?
  • Which item is included in the Transport Emergency kit?
  • Face to face briefing is required before command transfer?
  • S.P.E.A.R. stands for which components?
  • Which statement reflects protections included in the Fifth Amendment?
  • Controlled presence includes which elements?
  • Butane Hash Oil (BHO) is defined as?
  • Which option is NOT listed as a coping strategy?
  • The statement 'Sexual contact between residents is a rule violation, not a crime' is true.
  • Which of the following is a level of discriminate listening?
  • What are the three types of people we deal with?
  • When responding to suicidal individuals you should?
  • B-Team responders are defined as which of the following?
  • What does SAM stand for?
  • Lethal force can be defined as:
  • For Court, CRC residents get what type of body search?
  • Searches should be conducted in a professional and respectful manner to minimize embarrassment.
  • Which of the following lists the deployment type that creates a cone or fog pattern?
  • What is a clandestine lab?
  • Which statement about OC is incorrect?
  • What is the active ingredient in marijuana?
  • Which statement is NOT considered an intermediate weapon?
  • Which action best supports prevention of staff sexual misconduct?
  • Who signs as the endorsing authority for the DOR?
  • Which statement about seat placement in transport is true?
  • Deadly force may be used to overcome resistance only if
  • When may searches be conducted?
  • Which statement best describes the relationship between risk factors and indicators in suicide risk assessment?
  • Which term refers to prohibited items that cannot be kept by a resident?
  • Who renders a determination after the DHO reviews video or audio?
  • Why paraphrase?
  • Distress is associated with which physiological response?
  • True or False: Both types of classification score the same factors, but initial classifications are more stringent to allow a "cooling-off" and observation period.
  • Which description best defines Non-acute Suicide Watch?
  • Close custody residents are confined within a secure perimeter and under staff supervision 24 hours per day, seven days per week.
  • Who typically serves the DOR to the resident?
  • Does restrictive housing pose an increased risk of resident suicide?
  • Preservation/Isolation of the area where a crime has occurred or is suspected to have occurred should be performed.
  • Which of the following are considered unauthorized uses of the disciplinary process?
  • Which statement defines probable cause in this context?
  • Which statement best describes the two types of the classification process?
  • Which statement best defines Distress?
  • Category 3 Use of Force includes:
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the six tactics for developing a security mindset?
  • Which team is described as immediately available and able to leave the facility?
  • Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?
  • How long from when the endorsement is served to the resident?
  • Based on the policy, firing from a moving vehicle is permissible only under which condition?
  • Cocaine is commonly referred to by which of the following slang terms?
  • What is aerobic exercise?
  • In this context, IDOC most likely refers to which organization?
  • Which distance zone is described as Public in proxemics?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the anatomy of a lawsuit?
  • Which of the following lists are common law torts?
  • Which statement about PREA and the 8th Amendment rights is accurate?
  • Which of the following is considered Major Contraband?
  • Which sequence correctly lists the four proxemic zones from closest to farthest?
  • STG is an abbreviation for what term?
  • Why is continuous training important?
  • Which factor is identified as leading to misconduct?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason to choose the gang life?
  • True or False: No more than a 10-second pause between rescue breaths and resuming compressions.
  • After any property issues and the search has been completed, the Resident being transported will be isolated from other Residents until the time of transport.
  • True or False: Religious property is included in a resident's 6 cubic feet of total property.
  • Which statement best defines Eustress?
  • Which term describes the final action taken with property as it is transferred to its designated destination?
  • In the described basic stance for searches, what is the weight distribution?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as part of the standards for professional conduct?
  • Which statement best defines drug abuse?
  • Marijuana can be consumed in which forms?
  • Which of the following is a Schedule I drug?
  • In a planned incident, command is identified as what?
  • To justify your decision to use force, you should be prepared to answer which three questions?
  • Which of the following is part of the anatomy of a lawsuit?
  • Which statement accurately describes escalation and de-escalation in communication?
  • Eustress is best described as
  • Is it true that we can escalate or de-escalate by our words and our presence?
  • What are the five functions of command?
  • What percentage of completed suicides in jails and prisons used hanging as their method?
  • Which statement accurately describes seizure of a suspect?
  • Security staff must complete tier checks at random intervals not to exceed how many minutes?
  • Level 1 and Level 2 Enhancements on a Class A DOR will affect how long the DOR will affect their classification.
  • Why do we write reports?
  • Which statement accurately reflects the policy on sexual contact by supervising officers with parolees or probationers not the officer's spouse?
  • Which statement describes the Fifth Amendment?
  • Which description best defines sexual contact as used in policy?
  • How many components are in the FITT principle?
  • Where is the date located in a logbook?
  • What is anaerobic exercise?
  • If you discover contraband, you should inventory it and continue to search rather than stopping to report.
  • Situational stress, or encounter stress, is defined as which type?
  • Which color is associated with Surenos origin tag?
  • Staff shall NOT fire at a moving vehicle or an aircraft in flight over a facility or landing within a secure perimeter, except in self-defense. This statement is:
  • Which statement best defines staff sexual misconduct?
  • Which statement reflects the correct order to perform the three transport steps?
  • Which category includes Folk Nation and Bloods within Idaho Gangs?
  • Is heroin considered a narcotic?
  • Which of the following is an example of minor contraband?
  • The right to a speedy and public trial is guaranteed by which amendment?
  • Which statement correctly describes the hydraulic needle effect?
  • Which option is NOT a step in deploying OC?
  • In the AEIDD five functions, what does Develop refer to?
  • Which action best supports establishing a safer environment in communication?
  • The policy regarding transgender or intersex residents states that the facility shall not search for the sole purpose of determining genital status.
  • Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the level of force?
  • Which statement best describes the Do's in writing the DOR?
  • Upon activation of the staging area, the Staging Area Manager must announce activation, specify location, and establish control of the staging function.
  • Non-acute suicide watch applies to residents who express current suicidal ideation without a specific threat or plan.
  • Unclothed body searches must be conducted by a staff member of the same gender.
  • Which definition best describes suicide?
  • Who are at risk (Staff) according to the material?
  • During transport, residents are classified as being in what type of facility for directive purposes?
  • Is a DOR written in the first person?
  • Which of the following is a purpose of communication?
  • Who holds the DOR hearing and assigns sanctions?
  • Which of the following is an antisocial behavior?
  • Unity of Command means what in incident operations?
  • Residents are supposed to know exactly when cell searches will occur.
  • Turnouts are which concept in the setup process?
  • Where should the feet be positioned in the described basic stance?
  • What describes our responsibility in effective communication?
  • Which pairing correctly matches the depths for adult and child compressions?
  • Which of the following is an element of paralanguage?
  • True or False: One officer will be armed when transporting medium, close, administrative segregation, or death row residents; the armed officer will not come in contact with the residents?
  • In Advanced Effective Communication, what is the officer's #1 priority?
  • Residents are not allowed to use property as currency in the facilities. True or False?
  • The condition PTSD is defined as which type of stress?
  • C-Team responders are comprised of which arrangement?
  • According to the data, where do most suicides occur in prison settings?
  • Indicators for suicide risk are best described by which statement?
  • Who is responsible to ensure property reaches the appropriate destination?
  • What is the role of the incident commander?
  • The history and origin of ICS traces back to which context?
  • In this model, what role does day-to-day interaction between officer and contact play?
  • A valid Disciplinary process must be what?
  • Medium custody residents are confined within what kind of perimeter?
  • Where did Surenos originate?
  • Can female staff perform searches of all residents?
  • What does the acronym PS stand for?
  • Which of the following is the third element in the anatomy of a lawsuit?
  • Profession boundaries differ from a con game in that boundary issues involve emotions on which sides?
  • Close Observation is designed to be used for individuals with psychotic or mental health symptoms that require placement in a holding cell for stabilization or to decrease stimuli.
  • Which distance corresponds to the Personal zone in proxemics?
  • The facility shall not search or physically exam a transgender or intersex resident for the sole purpose of determining the resident's genital status.
  • What are the four proxemic zones and their approximate distance ranges?
  • What happens to authorized personal property during transfer prior to inventory completion?
  • What is the effective range for OC?
  • When do you establish command?
  • How many tactics are listed for developing a security mindset?
  • Which statements correctly describe clothed body searches?
  • Residents returning to a higher custody level from a CRC shall be restrained according to custody level of receiving facility.
  • Which practice contradicts the recommended DOR writing guidelines?
  • Describe the justification for Use of Force? Hint (AOMP)
  • Severely violent Criminals (SVC) began when and where?
  • Which scenario demonstrates implied consent?
  • What is the primary purpose of high-quality CPR?
  • Supervisors responding to a Brief Initial Report should immediately evaluate the situation to determine the need for transfer of command based on their knowledge of the institution, staff and institutional protocols?
  • OC stands for what compound used in pepper spray?
  • Drug forfeiture refers to which of the following?
  • Delivery or a controlled substance means what?
  • Tactical Priority 1 is defined as what?
  • Are the restraint requirements for Medium custody transports the same as AdSeg transports?
  • Verbal de-escalation is primarily a form of
  • Which of the following is an active lab precaution?
  • Define Minor contraband.
  • What is the maximum imprisonment term not to exceed for sexual contact with a resident?
  • Reclassification occurs after the initial classification and thereafter or when custody might change.
  • Which action is a professional boundary violation?
  • Which of the following best describes the impact on the corrections profession when staff engage in sexual misconduct?
  • Which lists all three OC deployment types?
  • Close Observation is defined as:
  • Tactical Priority 3 is defined as what?
  • The method most commonly used in completed suicides in jails and prisons is hanging.
  • Which is the final stage in the anatomy of a lawsuit?
  • Which statement best describes the purpose of Unity of Command?
  • Category 2 Use of Force is defined as:
  • Searches of resident living areas should be conducted routinely, at which intervals?
  • Examples of Minor contraband include which item?
  • Which description best fits hallucinogens?
  • Tactical Priority 2 is defined as what?
  • The Transport Emergency kit includes a cellular phone.
  • True or False: The IDOC disciplinary process is an internal administrative process, not a legal one.
  • Step 13 in the process is known as which term?
  • Which of the following is an indicator for suicide risk?
  • In a designated transport vehicle Residents should not sit behind the driver, unless there are multiple Residents being transported.
  • Which of the following is a guideline for DOR writing?
  • Paralanguage addresses which of the following qualities?
  • Which of the following is a coping strategy?
  • In the setup process, which term refers to the techniques and tools used?
  • How many officers are required for Minimum/Community custody residents during transports?
  • Which of the following is a potential consequence to the department due to misconduct?
  • What are the 4 C's?
  • Using the Scoville rating, where is OC ranked for heat?
  • Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) is a naturally occurring chemical derived from the pepper plant.
  • Which phrase best captures the standard for a well-constructed report?
  • Which term among the common terms for resident property refers to the resident's rightful belongings?
  • Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs was created in what year?
  • Which team would most likely involve federal agents?
  • Tactical Priority 4 is defined as what?
  • Which statement about residents' rights is accurate?
  • For purposes of the directive, residents on transport are considered to be within what type of facility?
  • How often will training on suicide risk management occur?
  • What is good faith immunity?
  • Antisocial behavior consists of actions that harm or lack consideration for the well-being of others.
  • The first person to arrive is responsible for preserving the crime scene and may provide first aid if it is SAFE to do so; if you are alone, first aid may have to wait for back up to arrive.
  • Which of the following is a type of OC deployment?
  • What does habeas corpus challenge?
  • The 4-step paraphrasing process is:
  • Which statement best describes professional boundaries?
  • Which option lists a rule to avoid escalation?
  • Which of the following is NOT a function of command?
  • What is the purpose of the speculative statement in the four-step process?
  • For Resident Companions, except under unusual circumstances, the companions do not conduct monitoring for more than 4 hours in a 24 hour period.
  • Law Enforcement is 25x more likely to die from cardiovascular disease than from the action of a suspect.
  • Identify prevention strategies as described in the material.
  • Are violent residents more likely to complete suicide than non-violent residents?
  • True or False: Immediate high-quality CPR is important because it helps keep oxygenated blood flowing to the heart and brain.
  • In communication, nonverbal cues typically convey more meaning than spoken words.
  • True or False: You are permitted to use deadly force to defend yourself against vague threats!
  • Escape history is a factor measured in the classification process.
  • Resident background in planning includes which factors?
  • According to the data, a certain percentage of residents in custody are suspected STG members. True or False?
  • Which statement best defines deliberate indifference?
  • What makes a good report?
  • The Transport Emergency kit includes a First Aid Kit.
  • Define Contraband.
  • Which statement about transfer of command is true?
  • Verbal de-escalation is not associated with which?
  • Psycho Soldiers began when and where?
  • The statement 'Searches can become a serious problem if not done thoroughly and in a professional manner' is:
  • Which combination best lists core nonverbal cues?
  • Relative to a child, the depth of adult chest compressions is
  • Which statement defines the Fourth Amendment?
  • Which of the following is explicitly listed as a retained right?
  • Who reviews video or audio in the DOR process when requested?
  • Which of the following is NOT a long-term stress consequence?
  • An initial classification is performed when a resident first arrives in custody.
  • Which sequence correctly represents the four-step process in effective communication?
  • Which term describes the fight-or-flight response triggered in times of duress?
  • Policy requires searches be performed in the least intrusive manner possible, consistent with security needs and in a way that maintains the resident's dignity.
  • Which statement reflects policy about suspect suffering after control?
  • How long after a staff member learns of an offense should the DOR be written?
  • Heroin is typically administered by which route?
  • PREA standards were adopted to support implementation of the law in which year?
  • Mandatory overrides are based on which criteria?
  • In a 24-hour period, what is the maximum total monitoring time allowed when an extension is granted?
  • The brief progress report format should be used for briefing?
  • Use of force to prevent escape is reasonably necessary when a person charged with or suspected of a felony poses a threat of death or serious injury.
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as an influence of emotions?
  • Where should the basic information appear in a well-constructed report?
  • Which amendment states that No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of the citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, property, without due process of law?
  • Which outcome is associated with the impact on personal relationships when misconduct occurs?
  • Which set of items is included in the Transport Emergency kit?
  • Which items are listed as contexts of stress types?
  • Which custody levels require UNCLOTHED body searches?
  • Do most suicides occur in a resident's cell according to the data?
  • What is our number one priority in this context?
  • Which term describes a risk factor category?
  • What information should you have in a DOR?
  • What is the primary purpose of the classification process?
  • What are the two types of consent?
  • Which is the fourth element in the anatomy of a lawsuit?
  • The use of wrist restraints is mandatory on all transports, while waist restraints and leg restraints are optional (depends on custody level) CRC residents.
  • What should be the foundation of quality law enforcement ethics?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of PPORC sizing up?
  • Delivery means which?
  • Anticipatory stress or worry about what might happen in the future is defined as which type?
  • Which of the following is NOT a listed reason for a transfer of command?
  • The Fourth Amendment does not apply in prison.
  • What does PREA stand for?
  • Which of the following is a type of stretching?
  • Which statement describes the types of transfer of command?
  • Which statement about the use of deadly force is accurate?
  • All authorized personal property will be inventoried, and kept from the Resident(s) until the inventory process at the new facility is complete.
  • Which statement best defines prosocial behaviors?
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